beggerwill beggerwill
  • 01-02-2020
  • Mathematics
contestada

If f(x) = 1 – X, which value is equivalent to f0]?

Respuesta :

grkittinger
grkittinger grkittinger
  • 01-02-2020

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

0=1-x

-1= -x

divide both sides by -1

x=1

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

Buddhism spread to places such a Ceylon and Central Asia by _____. merchants and Buddhist nuns and monks its founder Indians from lower classes the Dalai Lama
what is the measure of B 25 C 25 A 25
Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly. What is a continuous discussion to bring out innovative ideas from employees? A _____ session is
What is one country on the continent of Africa shown on your cultural region map as having a mixed culture or is a ""special case?""
can you use condensed milk instead of evaporated milk
Please hurry!! After studying both prehistoric and ancient art, your classmate Nathaniel is determined that these two types of art are almost exactly the same.
Use mental math to find the partial products 3,000 x 5=
What are the two types of democracy? A)Oligarchy & Monarchy B)Parliamentary and Presidential C)Presidential and Monarchy D)Monarchy and Dictatorship
Find the range of the graphed function. - 10 10 -10 O A. yis all real numbers. B. y: 0 OC. -6 sys 9 OD. -10 sys
Evaluate (x +40) -- 23 when 2 = = 8. 8 O A. 5 B. 48 C. 6 D. 8 Pls help